1 / 100
An applicant for a commercial pilot license shall hold:
2 / 100
During flight through the transition layer, the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as:
3 / 100
Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance, is:
4 / 100
The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by:
5 / 100
Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:
6 / 100
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is:
7 / 100
According to VAR, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and maneuvers of an aeroplane type certificated.for:
8 / 100
A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
9 / 100
An aircraft is flying under instrument flight rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is:
10 / 100
In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway center line within:
11 / 100
In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to:
12 / 100
Turning departures provide track guidance within:
13 / 100
The certificate of registration shall:
14 / 100
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:
15 / 100
A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:
16 / 100
Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:
17 / 100
Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descent below the OCA?
18 / 100
For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force?
19 / 100
The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:
20 / 100
In a standard holding pattern, turns are made:
21 / 100
According to which convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person committing a crime or an offence on board the aircraft?
22 / 100
Which of the following signals is a distress signal?
23 / 100
In a holding pattern, all turns are to be made at a :
24 / 100
If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descent shall be made so as to :
25 / 100
According to the Chicago convention, aircraft of contracting states shall have the right to make flights into or in transit non-stop across the territory of other contracting states and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following flights:
26 / 100
Which of the following ICAO documents contain international standards and recommended practices (SARPS)?
27 / 100
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?
28 / 100
Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft to third parties on the surface?
29 / 100
When has a flight plan to be filed at the latest?
30 / 100
What defines a danger area?
31 / 100
What will be your action if you cannot comply with a standard holding pattern?
32 / 100
(IR) Where does the missed approach procedure start?
33 / 100
While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?
34 / 100
Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land?
35 / 100
While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower, series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
36 / 100
If the time estimated for the next reporting point differs from that notified to ATS, a revised estimate shall be notified to ATS if the time difference is:
37 / 100
In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from:
38 / 100
(IR) An ETA for an IFR flight refers to the following:
39 / 100
(IR) If, during a visual circling, visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, the pilot shall:
40 / 100
As a rule, while establishing the departure procedures, the operator reckons that aeroplane has a climb gradient of:
41 / 100
Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?
42 / 100
Load factors has the following meaning:
43 / 100
An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
44 / 100
If in an instrument departure procedure, the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected:
45 / 100
In an instrument departure procedure, the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals:
46 / 100
(IR) Why is the descent gradient kept as low as possible in the intermediate approach segment?
47 / 100
When the aircraft carries serviceable mode C equipment, the pilot:
48 / 100
In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centerline, after being established on track, more than:
49 / 100
An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:
50 / 100
The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date:
51 / 100
Aircraft on the maneuvering area have to give way to:
52 / 100
The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is:
53 / 100
Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction?
54 / 100
The international civil aviation organization (ICAO.) was established by the international convention of:
55 / 100
The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of :
56 / 100
The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of:
57 / 100
In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called:
58 / 100
What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?
59 / 100
A circling approach is:
60 / 100
In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft, the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in:
61 / 100
The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:
62 / 100
The first freedom of the air is:
63 / 100
The second freedom of the air is the:
64 / 100
The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:
65 / 100
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?
66 / 100
The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:
67 / 100
To cross lighted stop bars on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome, the following applies:
68 / 100
The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot license shall not be less than:
69 / 100
If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:
70 / 100
In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to:
71 / 100
A maneuver in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a:
72 / 100
The transition level:
73 / 100
(IR) The entry into a holding pattern shall be according to:
74 / 100
Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft:
75 / 100
The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is :
76 / 100
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
77 / 100
The loading limitations shall include:
78 / 100
Entering a holding pattern at FL110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed?
79 / 100
A horizontal white dumb-bell when displayed on a signal area of an aerodrome means:
80 / 100
Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:
81 / 100
You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descent below the MDA should not be made until:
1. The pilot has the landing threshold in sight2. Visual reference has beenestablished and can be maintained3. The required obstacle clearance can be maintained and alanding can be made.
The combination regrouping all the correct answers is:
82 / 100
In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below:
83 / 100
Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?
84 / 100
Annex 17 to the convention of Chicago covers:
85 / 100
Which maneuver shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft "you may proceed”?
86 / 100
How many separate segments does an instrument approach procedure have?
87 / 100
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unlessotherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following codes in mode "A":
88 / 100
When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licenses - aeroplane and helicopter - have passed their 40th birthday, the medical examination shall be reduced from:
89 / 100
(IR) Is the length of the outbound leg of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time?
90 / 100
Type ratings shall be established:
91 / 100
An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall set its transponder to:
92 / 100
Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave acontrol zone when ceiling is less than:
93 / 100
The international civil aviation organization (ICAO) establishes:
94 / 100
Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track?
95 / 100
"Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist". This signal from a signalman to an aircraft means:
96 / 100
What is the normal procedure design climb gradient for a missed approach procedure?
97 / 100
Standard airway holding pattern below 14,000 ft:
98 / 100
On a non-precision approach, a so-called "straight-in-approach" is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centerline is:
99 / 100
In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:
100 / 100
In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of the turn for categories c, d, e aircraft for:
Your score is
The average score is 99%
In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is the:
The stopway is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where:
"An area symmetrical about the extended runway centerline and adjacent to the end of the strip primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway" is the definition for:
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to :
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of:
Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when:
What color are runway edge lights?
Taxiway edge lights shall be:
"TODA" take-off distance available is:
What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference :
In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is:
An aircraft is flying in heavy rain. To carry out a safe approach, it is necessary to :
The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Mach number is :
For twin-engine aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that:
A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least:
In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, you will:
1. Set the maximum take-off thrust2. Increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating the stick shaker3. Pull in the drag devices (gear and flaps)4. Keep the airplane's current configuration5. Try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratio.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
The term decision height (DH) is used for :
During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is:
DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated takeoffmass. Heavy (H) Category includes all aircraft types of :
When applying longitudinal separation based on distance (DME), the minimum separation between two aircraft on reciprocal tracks climbing or descending through the same flight level shall be at least:
Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as:
A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with :
The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS Airspace is:
Where a runway has a displaced threshold, what color are the edge lights between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold showing in the direction of the approach?
The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on:1. The type and intensity of the showers2. The ambient temperature3. The relative humidity4. The direction and speed of the wind5. The temperature of the airplane skin6. The type of fluid, its concentration and temperature.
When a radar operator says the following to an aircraft: "fly heading 030", the pilot must fly heading:
Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?
For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes unless otherwise specified, an aircraft must be equipped with at least:
In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air-air communications is:
What lighting is required for runways to be used for take-off in an operating minimum below an RVR of approximately 400 m?
Required navigation performance (RNP) shall be prescribed:
A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on track" waypoint. This minimum is:
Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom the commander should submit a report of the act?
When on a RNP 1 route is indicated a342 z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of :
The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of colored streamers according to the following code:
A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :
The ground - air visual code illustrated means:
Runway end lights shall be:
One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destinationor, at an aerodrome of alternative destination, are:
The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels:
When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable theaircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than :
When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the following effects:1. an increase in the take-off distance2. a diminution of the take-off run3. an increase in the stalling speed4. a diminution of the stalling speed5. a diminution of the climb gradient.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling, the pilot should contact departure control:
A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :
What color is taxiway edge lighting?
For a long-range four-jet aircraft in cruising flight, the optimum altitude and the lock-on altitude increase. The most cost-effective flight plan will consist of choosing cruising levels which increase during the flight in order to fly :
During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time starts:
When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary that:
In the "PAPI" system, the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when:
"ASDA" (acceleration stop distance available) is:
Aircraft in which wake turbulence category shall include their category immediately after the call sign in the initial radiotelephony contact with the aerodrome control tower or the approach control office prior to departure or arrival?
Which wake turbulence radar separation minima shall be applied between a heavy aircraft and a succeeding medium aircraft during the approach and departure phases of a flight?
For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?
The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is:
Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:
To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should maneuver :
The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot?
According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to :
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
In the "VASIS", how many light units are in each wing bar?
What is meant when a departure controller instructs you to "resume own navigation" after you have been vectored to an airway?
ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are:
"Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures:
What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?
Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:
The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following into account:1. Equipment available for navigation2. Dimensions and characteristics of the runways3. Composition of the flight crew4. Obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas5. Facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditions.
A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :
If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft:
When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:
"A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off" is thedefinition for:
Which of the following is not an international distress frequency?
The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :
Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with secondary surveillance radar (SSR)?
When on a RNP 1 route is indicated b235 y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of:
The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from :
Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that:
Two aircraft are departing from a reporting point defined by an NDB. What is the minimum track separation required before one aircraft would be permitted to climb/descend through the other aircraft's level?
The light shown by an "aerodrome identification beacon" at a land aerodrome shall be:
The holdover time following an anti-icing procedure being carried out will vary considerably depending on the ambient temperature and the weather conditions. For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in weather conditions of:
Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of:
The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a :
Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a windshear?
For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of the following types of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be shortest ?
Runway threshold lights shall be:
Under which circumstances may a pilot deviate from a published instrument approach procedure?
Change from IFR to VFR will always take place:
High intensity obstacle lights should be:
One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least:
In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when:
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:
The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :
What does a white line drawn across a runway indicate?
In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:
A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from the shore by more than :
Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:
Selecting an alternate aerodrome, the runway of this facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within:
The average score is 98%
Normally how should you call a Flight Attendant?
What limitation is associated with the ram air valve?
Which statement is TRUE concerning the cargo compartment ventilation?
What information is supplied by the IR's and displayed on the PFD?
Where no outer marker or equivalent position exists, the pilot in command shall make the decision to continue or stop the approach before descending below --------------- on the final approach segment.
Placing the BLOWER push button to override:
If a flight is cleared to hold, ATC holding instructions must be complied with. …
How long does a normal IR alignment take?
Which of the following statements is always true when operating in alternate law?
In addition to the languages required by the State of Origin, what language should be set for the markings related to dangerous goods :
If the IR mode rotary selector is selected OFF:
Placing the avionics ventilation system in the smoke configuration:
Which of the following statements is correct concerning conditioned air?
All flight crew members when on duty MUST bring:
In normal law, the low speed limits depicted on each pilot’s PFD:
ACARS computerized Load and trim sheet must show name and staff ID number of the person preparing the sheet. The Commander acknowledges his receipt of ACARS computerized Load and trim sheet via ACARS data link network, giving his ….
The objective of CRM is to enhance:
The standard weight of crew, passengers and cargo for normal flights is as follows:
The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by :
What causes a DU to display a black screen with a white diagonal line?
Following an emergency landing which will need an escape from the aircraft, you will:1. remain on the runway,2. clear the runway using the first available taxiway,3. keep one engine or the APU running in order to maintain the electrical power supply on,4. turn off all systems.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
How can you change pressurization controllers during flight?
A pilot ------accept a clearance with which he cannot safely comply or which exceeds the capabilities of the aircraft. The commander is the final authority as to the operation of the aircraft.
Placing one of the ADR push buttons OFF will accomplish what?
Crew members shall, on request of a law enforcement officer or the Authority, yield to a test to indicate the presence of alcohol or psychoactive substances in the blood at any time:
What does amber SPEED BRAKES mean on lower ECAM?
What is the maximum altitude associated with the pressurization system?
How many temperature selectors are there on the A321? How many temperature zones are there?
In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain:
1. You increase your approach speed,2. You land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the wheels with the runway and immediately land your nose gear,3. You decrease your approach speed,4. You use systematically all the lift dumper devices,5. You land as smoothly as possible,6. You brake energetically.
The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the :
Temperature correction: The calculated minimum safe altitudes/heights must be corrected when the OAT is much ----- than that predicted by the standard atmosphere.
The ON BAT light will illuminate amber:
Pressurization controllers receive inputs from:
What is the function of the FACs?1. Rudder & Yaw Damping inputs.2. Flight envelope & Speed computations.3. Windshear protection.
Which statement is correct regarding illumination of the amber AFT ISOL VALVE fault light?
To communicate with a mechanic for manual start valve operation at the engine:
What happens when a temperature selector rotary knob is adjusted?
What are the different sources of air for air conditioning and pressurization?
For depressurization, it may be necessary to descend below the en-route minimum altitude determined for normal operation in order to cope with passenger oxygen requirements. At anytime, the aircraft gross (actual) flight path must clear vertically all obstacles by:
When the passenger checked baggage (loaded in the cargo compartment) is not weighed, the following standard weight per piece of checked baggage is used:
Airport categories B and C are considered special airports and:
How many Air Data/Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs) are installed on the A321?
While in-flight, operating in Normal law, in the Alpha prot range:
While in flight operating in Normal law, movement of the sidestick and subsequent return to neutral will command:
Pressurization is normally automatic on the A321. Can you interfere with it?
If the LOWER ECAM DU fails, is there a way to retrieve that information?
If both ELACs fail, what controls the elevator and stabilizer?
As a relief pilot, a first officer can operate on the left hand seat as PNF/PM only:
What happens to the pack flow control valves during engine start?
Aft cargo ventilation is controlled by:
The DDRMI provides the pilot with:
What action should be taken if IR #2 is lost:
On an autoland approach, with both autopilots on, which FMGC is master?
Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:
In normal law, MMO and VMO limits depicted on each pilot’s PFD: