Vahan Vardanian

8
Created on By vahanvardanian

1-100

1 / 100

Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?

2 / 100

The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:

3 / 100

Turning departures provide track guidance within:

4 / 100

A maneuver in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a:

5 / 100

The international civil aviation organization (ICAO) establishes:

6 / 100

Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:

7 / 100

Aircraft on the maneuvering area have to give way to:

8 / 100

The second freedom of the air is the:

9 / 100

What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?

10 / 100

Which of the following ICAO documents contain international standards and recommended practices (SARPS)?

11 / 100

Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction?

12 / 100

Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a
control zone when ceiling is less than:

13 / 100

(IR) If, during a visual circling, visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, the pilot shall:

14 / 100

The loading limitations shall include:

15 / 100

Load factors has the following meaning:

16 / 100

"Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist". This signal from a signalman to an aircraft means:

17 / 100

Which of the following signals is a distress signal?

18 / 100

Entering a holding pattern at FL110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed?

19 / 100

Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:

20 / 100

(IR) Where does the missed approach procedure start?

21 / 100

For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force?

22 / 100

When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licenses - aeroplane and helicopter - have passed their 40th birthday, the medical examination shall be reduced from:

23 / 100

Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land?

24 / 100

What is the normal procedure design climb gradient for a missed approach procedure?

25 / 100

What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?

26 / 100

Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft:

27 / 100

(IR) Why is the descent gradient kept as low as possible in the intermediate approach segment?

28 / 100

The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is :

29 / 100

In a holding pattern, all turns are to be made at a :

30 / 100

On a non-precision approach, a so-called "straight-in-approach" is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centerline is:

31 / 100

According to which convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person committing a crime or an offence on board the aircraft?

32 / 100

In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of the turn for categories c, d, e aircraft for:

33 / 100

What defines a danger area?

34 / 100

A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:

35 / 100

An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall set its transponder to:

36 / 100

The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of :

37 / 100

A circling approach is:

38 / 100

Which maneuver shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft "you may proceed”?

39 / 100

If in an instrument departure procedure, the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected:

40 / 100

Annex 17 to the convention of Chicago covers:

41 / 100

The first freedom of the air is:

42 / 100

Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance, is:

43 / 100

The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:

44 / 100

Standard airway holding pattern below 14,000 ft:

45 / 100

If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:

46 / 100

In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below:

47 / 100

Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft to third parties on the surface?

48 / 100

The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of:

49 / 100

An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:

50 / 100

In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:

51 / 100

If the time estimated for the next reporting point differs from that notified to ATS, a revised estimate shall be notified to ATS if the time difference is:

52 / 100

According to the Chicago convention, aircraft of contracting states shall have the right to make flights into or in transit non-stop across the territory of other contracting states and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following flights:

53 / 100

What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?

54 / 100

The certificate of registration shall:

55 / 100

During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is:

56 / 100

You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descent below the MDA should not be made until:

1. The pilot has the landing threshold in sight
2. Visual reference has been
established and can be maintained
3. The required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a
landing can be made.

The combination regrouping all the correct answers is:

57 / 100

In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway center line within:

58 / 100

An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unless
otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following codes in mode "A":

59 / 100

In an instrument departure procedure, the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals:

60 / 100

In a standard holding pattern, turns are made:

61 / 100

Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?

62 / 100

The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:

63 / 100

In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from:

64 / 100

The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is:

65 / 100

(IR) Is the length of the outbound leg of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time?

66 / 100

(IR) An ETA for an IFR flight refers to the following:

67 / 100

An aircraft is flying under instrument flight rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is:

68 / 100

(IR) The entry into a holding pattern shall be according to:

69 / 100

What will be your action if you cannot comply with a standard holding pattern?

70 / 100

The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot license shall not be less than:

71 / 100

In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft, the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in:

72 / 100

The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:

73 / 100

How many separate segments does an instrument approach procedure have?

74 / 100

In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centerline, after being established on track, more than:

75 / 100

The international civil aviation organization (ICAO.) was established by the international convention of:

76 / 100

In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to:

77 / 100

If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descent shall be made so as to :

78 / 100

An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:

79 / 100

An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:

80 / 100

In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to:

81 / 100

While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?

82 / 100

A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:

83 / 100

While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower, series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:

84 / 100

When the aircraft carries serviceable mode C equipment, the pilot:

85 / 100

In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called:

86 / 100

According to VAR, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and maneuvers of an aeroplane type certificated.
for:

87 / 100

During flight through the transition layer, the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as:

88 / 100

As a rule, while establishing the departure procedures, the operator reckons that aeroplane has a climb gradient of:

89 / 100

When has a flight plan to be filed at the latest?

90 / 100

Type ratings shall be established:

91 / 100

The transition level:

92 / 100

To cross lighted stop bars on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome, the following applies:

93 / 100

The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by:

94 / 100

Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descent below the OCA?

95 / 100

An applicant for a commercial pilot license shall hold:

96 / 100

Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track?

97 / 100

A horizontal white dumb-bell when displayed on a signal area of an aerodrome means:

98 / 100

Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:

99 / 100

A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:

100 / 100

The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date:

Your score is

The average score is 99%

0%

6
Created on By vahanvardanian

101-200

1 / 100

The ground - air visual code illustrated means:

2 / 100

"Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures:

3 / 100

Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a windshear?

4 / 100

What color are runway edge lights?

5 / 100

The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is:

6 / 100

What color is taxiway edge lighting?

7 / 100

Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:

8 / 100

Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom the commander should submit a report of the act?

9 / 100

Change from IFR to VFR will always take place:

10 / 100

The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following into account:
1. Equipment available for navigation
2. Dimensions and characteristics of the runways
3. Composition of the flight crew
4. Obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas
5. Facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditions.

11 / 100

Required navigation performance (RNP) shall be prescribed:

12 / 100

The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :

13 / 100

In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:

14 / 100

According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to :

15 / 100

The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot?

16 / 100

The light shown by an "aerodrome identification beacon" at a land aerodrome shall be:

17 / 100

Windshear is:

18 / 100

A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :

19 / 100

The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from :

20 / 100

For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?

21 / 100

During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time starts:

22 / 100

Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of:

23 / 100

The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels:

24 / 100

According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to :

25 / 100

When on a RNP 1 route is indicated b235 y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of:

26 / 100

During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling, the pilot should contact departure control:

27 / 100

"ASDA" (acceleration stop distance available) is:

28 / 100

What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?

29 / 100

One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination
or, at an aerodrome of alternative destination, are:

30 / 100

Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with secondary surveillance radar (SSR)?

31 / 100

The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a :

32 / 100

What is meant when a departure controller instructs you to "resume own navigation" after you have been vectored to an airway?

33 / 100

A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from the shore by more than :

34 / 100

In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is the:

35 / 100

The stopway is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where:

36 / 100

The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of colored streamers according to the following code:

37 / 100

In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air-air communications is:

38 / 100

For twin-engine aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that:

39 / 100

"A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off" is the
definition for:

40 / 100

What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference :

41 / 100

In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when:

42 / 100

A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on track" waypoint. This minimum is:

43 / 100

One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least:

44 / 100

The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of colored streamers according to the following code:

45 / 100

An aircraft is flying in heavy rain. To carry out a safe approach, it is necessary to :

46 / 100

Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as:

47 / 100

"TODA" take-off distance available is:

48 / 100

When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:

49 / 100

Taxiway edge lights shall be:

50 / 100

During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is:

51 / 100

Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?

52 / 100

ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are:

53 / 100

Two aircraft are departing from a reporting point defined by an NDB. What is the minimum track separation required before one aircraft would be permitted to climb/descend through the other aircraft's level?

54 / 100

Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:

55 / 100

The holdover time following an anti-icing procedure being carried out will vary considerably depending on the ambient temperature and the weather conditions. For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in weather conditions of:

56 / 100

Where a runway has a displaced threshold, what color are the edge lights between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold showing in the direction of the approach?

57 / 100

Aircraft in which wake turbulence category shall include their category immediately after the call sign in the initial radiotelephony contact with the aerodrome control tower or the approach control office prior to departure or arrival?

58 / 100

A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with :

59 / 100

When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the
aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than :

60 / 100

Which of the following is not an international distress frequency?

61 / 100

A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :

62 / 100

In the "PAPI" system, the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when:

63 / 100

Runway threshold lights shall be:

64 / 100

The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :

65 / 100

Selecting an alternate aerodrome, the runway of this facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within:

66 / 100

Which wake turbulence radar separation minima shall be applied between a heavy aircraft and a succeeding medium aircraft during the approach and departure phases of a flight?

67 / 100

The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:

68 / 100

In the "VASIS", how many light units are in each wing bar?

69 / 100

A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least:

70 / 100

When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary that:

71 / 100

What does a white line drawn across a runway indicate?

72 / 100

The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS Airspace is:

73 / 100

In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is:

74 / 100

Runway end lights shall be:

75 / 100

For a long-range four-jet aircraft in cruising flight, the optimum altitude and the lock-on altitude increase. The most cost-effective flight plan will consist of choosing cruising levels which increase during the flight in order to fly :

76 / 100

The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:

77 / 100

If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft:

78 / 100

For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes unless otherwise specified, an aircraft must be equipped with at least:

79 / 100

The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of colored streamers according to the following code:

80 / 100

What lighting is required for runways to be used for take-off in an operating minimum below an RVR of approximately 400 m?

81 / 100

The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on:
1. The type and intensity of the showers
2. The ambient temperature
3. The relative humidity
4. The direction and speed of the wind
5. The temperature of the airplane skin
6. The type of fluid, its concentration and temperature.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

82 / 100

DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated takeoff
mass. Heavy (H) Category includes all aircraft types of :

83 / 100

When applying longitudinal separation based on distance (DME), the minimum separation between two aircraft on reciprocal tracks climbing or descending through the same flight level shall be at least:

84 / 100

A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :

85 / 100

High intensity obstacle lights should be:

86 / 100

Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when:

87 / 100

In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, you will:

1. Set the maximum take-off thrust
2. Increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating the stick shaker
3. Pull in the drag devices (gear and flaps)
4. Keep the airplane's current configuration
5. Try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratio.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

88 / 100

The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:

89 / 100

Under which circumstances may a pilot deviate from a published instrument approach procedure?

90 / 100

The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Mach number is :

91 / 100

When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the following effects:
1. an increase in the take-off distance
2. a diminution of the take-off run
3. an increase in the stalling speed
4. a diminution of the stalling speed
5. a diminution of the climb gradient.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

92 / 100

When on a RNP 1 route is indicated a342 z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of :

93 / 100

Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that:

94 / 100

For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of the following types of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be shortest ?

95 / 100

When a radar operator says the following to an aircraft: "fly heading 030", the pilot must fly heading:

96 / 100

Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:

97 / 100

The term decision height (DH) is used for :

98 / 100

To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should maneuver :

99 / 100

"An area symmetrical about the extended runway centerline and adjacent to the end of the strip primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway" is the definition for:

100 / 100

For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of:

Your score is

The average score is 98%

0%

5
Created on By vahanvardanian

201-300

1 / 100

The IR ALIGN light is extinguished. What does this mean?

2 / 100

How can you change pressurization controllers during flight?

3 / 100

Pressurization controllers receive inputs from:

4 / 100

What computers control the cabin and cockpit conditioned air?

5 / 100

A clearance must be read back to ATC and for a confirmation between both pilot crew members in the case of clearances received:

6 / 100

If the LOWER ECAM DU fails, is there a way to retrieve that information?

7 / 100

ACARS computerized Load and trim sheet must show name and staff ID number of the person preparing the sheet. The Commander acknowledges his receipt of ACARS computerized Load and trim sheet via ACARS data link network, giving his ….

8 / 100

Where is the information displayed by DMC #1 and DMC #2?

9 / 100

If the time difference (TD) between the countries of origin and destination is 04 hours or more:

10 / 100

Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:

11 / 100

An augmented flight crew is scheduled to carry out no more than:

12 / 100

Aft cargo ventilation is controlled by:

13 / 100

In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain:

1. You increase your approach speed,
2. You land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the wheels with the runway and immediately land your nose gear,
3. You decrease your approach speed,
4. You use systematically all the lift dumper devices,
5. You land as smoothly as possible,
6. You brake energetically.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

14 / 100

Final Reserve Fuel is the amount of fuel to fly:

15 / 100

The objective of CRM is to enhance:

16 / 100

What limitation is associated with the ram air valve?

17 / 100

The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the :

18 / 100

When would you select ECON FLOW ON?

19 / 100

What action should be taken if IR #2 is lost:

20 / 100

Pressurization is normally automatic on the A321. Can you interfere with it?

21 / 100

Crew members must not commence a flight duty period with a blood alcohol level in excess of:

22 / 100

When does normal pressurization occur?

23 / 100

While in-flight, operating in Normal law, in the Alpha prot range:

24 / 100

If the IR mode rotary selector is selected OFF:

25 / 100

Pressure correction: When flying at levels with the altimeter set to 1013hPa, the minimum safe altitude must be corrected for deviations in pressure when the pressure is -----------than the
standard atmosphere (1013hPa).

26 / 100

How long does a normal IR alignment take?

27 / 100

A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be:

28 / 100

Which of the following statements is always true when operating in alternate law?

29 / 100

A pilot shall not be assigned to operate an aeroplane as part of the minimum certified crew, either as pilot flying or pilot non-flying:

30 / 100

The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:

31 / 100

In normal law, pitch and roll attitude limits depicted on each pilot’s PFD:

32 / 100

In addition to the languages required by the State of Origin, what language should be set for the markings related to dangerous goods :

33 / 100

How many trim air valves are there?

34 / 100

How many temperature selectors are there on the A321? How many temperature zones are there?

35 / 100

The white IR ALIGN light is flashing. What does this mean?

36 / 100

In normal law, the low speed limits depicted on each pilot’s PFD:

37 / 100

What is the difference between -FD2 and 2FD- on the FMA?

38 / 100

Which protection is not available below 100 feet AGL?

39 / 100

With the pressurization system in the automatic mode, which valves are closed when the ditching push button is selected on?

40 / 100

What causes a DU to display a black screen with a white diagonal line?

41 / 100

Placing the avionics ventilation system in the smoke configuration:

42 / 100

While in flight operating in Normal law, movement of the sidestick and subsequent return to neutral will command:

43 / 100

Which of the following statements is correct concerning conditioned air?

44 / 100

As a relief pilot, a first officer can operate on the left hand seat as PNF/PM only:

45 / 100

What is the maximum altitude associated with the pressurization system?

46 / 100

What does amber SPEED BRAKES mean on lower ECAM?

47 / 100

What is the function of the FACs?
1. Rudder & Yaw Damping inputs.
2. Flight envelope & Speed computations.
3. Windshear protection.

48 / 100

An amber flashing IR FAULT light indicates that:

49 / 100

Blocktime calculation method for each duty augmented flight crew member:

50 / 100

Crew members shall, on request of a law enforcement officer or the Authority, yield to a test to indicate the presence of alcohol or psychoactive substances in the blood at any time:

51 / 100

Temperature correction: The calculated minimum safe altitudes/heights must be corrected when the OAT is much ----- than that predicted by the standard atmosphere.

52 / 100

Which statement is correct?

53 / 100

Which statement is TRUE concerning the cargo compartment ventilation?

54 / 100

To communicate with a mechanic for manual start valve operation at the engine: