Air Law Test - Vahan Vardanian

Created on August 09, 2023 By

vahanvardanian

1-100

1 / 100

An applicant for a commercial pilot license shall hold:

A current class 1 medical assessment.

A current class 3 medical assessment.

A current class 2 medical assessment.

A current class medical assessment as prescribed by the state issuing the license.

2 / 100

During flight through the transition layer, the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as:

Altitude above mean sea level during descent

Flight level during descent

Altitude above mean sea level during climb

Either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during climb

3 / 100

Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance, is:

6,5%.

8%.

5%.

7%.

4 / 100

The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by:

The state of registry.

The international civil aviation organization.

The state of registry and accepted by the international telecommunication union.

The international telecommunication union.

5 / 100

Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:

At transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent.

At transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent.

Only at transition altitude.

Only at transition level.

6 / 100

During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is:

30 m (98 ft)

90 m (295 ft)

50 m (164 ft)

120 m (384 ft)

7 / 100

According to VAR, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and maneuvers of an aeroplane type certificated.
for:

A minimum crew of two pilots under IFR.

Operations by pilots under training.

For the carriage of passengers at night.

A minimum crew of two pilots plus a flight engineer.

8 / 100

A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:

The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling

Give way to other aircraft in emergency

Continue circling and wait for further instructions

The airport is unsafe, do not land

9 / 100

An aircraft is flying under instrument flight rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is:

Adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination

Land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise air traffic services of landing

Continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight plan

Descend to en-route minimum safe altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations

10 / 100

In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway center line within:

45°

30°

12.5°

15°

11 / 100

In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to:

Bearing.

Course.

Track.

Heading.

12 / 100

Turning departures provide track guidance within:

20 km

10 km

5 km

15 km

13 / 100

The certificate of registration shall:

Be visible to the passengers at all times.

Be carried on board the aircraft at all times.

Be reproduced on the portion of the airline ticket that stays with the passenger.

Both a and c are correct.

14 / 100

An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:

121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz

121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz

121.5 MHz - 243 MHz

243 MHz - 125.5 MHz

15 / 100

A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:

Dangerous airfield. Do not land.

Come back and land.

Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being

Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.

16 / 100

Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:

0.8%.

3.3%.

2.5%.

5%.

17 / 100

Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descent below the OCA?

When the aircraft has the control tower in sight

When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet

When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight

When it seems possible to land

18 / 100

For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force?

The rules established under the convention of international civil aviation.

The rules established by the state of registry of the aircraft.

The rules established by the state of the operator of the aircraft.

The rules established by the state(s) adjacent to the high seas overflown.

19 / 100

The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:

The state of registry or common mark registering authority.

The international civil aviation organization.

The state of registry only.

The international telecommunication union.

20 / 100

In a standard holding pattern, turns are made:

In a direction depending on the entry.

To the right.

To the left.

In a direction depending on the wind direction.

21 / 100

According to which convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person committing a crime or an offence on board the aircraft?

The convention of Rome.

The convention of Tokyo.

The convention of Warsaw.

The convention of Chicago.

22 / 100

Which of the following signals is a distress signal?

A parachute flare showing a red light.

In radiotelephony the spoken words pan, pan.

The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights.

The repeated switching on and off of the navigation lights.

23 / 100

In a holding pattern, all turns are to be made at a :

Rate of 3° per second.

Maximum bank angle of 25°.

Rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever requires the lesser bank.

Rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser bank.

24 / 100

If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descent shall be made so as to :

Pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 feet/min, which is obligatory.

Follow approximately 50 feet above the nominal glide path.

Leave the intermediate approach altitude, step by step until reaching the MAPT.

Pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude.

25 / 100

According to the Chicago convention, aircraft of contracting states shall have the right to make flights into or in transit non-stop across the territory of other contracting states and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following flights:

To aircraft on non-commercial flights only.

To aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services.

To aircraft of scheduled air services only.

To aircraft engaged in commercial non-scheduled flights only.

26 / 100

Which of the following ICAO documents contain international standards and recommended practices (SARPS)?

Procedures for air navigation services (PANS).

Regional supplementary procedures (SUPPS).

Annexes to the convention on international civil aviation.

ICAO technical manuals.

27 / 100

What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?

1 minute

30 seconds

2 minutes

1,5 minutes

28 / 100

Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft to third parties on the surface?

The Montreal convention

The Rome convention

The Tokyo convention

The Guatemala convention

29 / 100

When has a flight plan to be filed at the latest?

60 minutes before departure or, if filed in flight, 10 minutes before the aircraft is estimated to reach the intended point of entry into a control area or advisory area or the point of crossing an airway or advisory route.

60 minutes before the flight plan becomes active.

10 minutes before departure into an advisory area.

60 minutes before departure or, if filed in flight, 30 minutes before the aircraft is estimated to reach the intended point of entry into a control area or advisory area or the point of crossing an airway or advisory route.

30 / 100

What defines a danger area?

A zone where military activity includes firing projectiles in the air.

Notified airspace (zone or area) where activities dangerous to flight may exist.

NOTAM activated airspace where the normal flight rules are disregarded.

Airspace of defined dimension where activities dangerous to flight may exist.

31 / 100

What will be your action if you cannot comply with a standard holding pattern?

Inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance.

Follow the radio communication failure procedure.

A non-standard holding pattern is permitted.

It is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern at pilot’s discretion.

32 / 100

(IR) Where does the missed approach procedure start?

At the missed approach point.

At DH/MDH.

At any point that the criteria to continue the approach is lost.

Over the threshold of the instrument runway

33 / 100

While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?

Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan

Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours

Squawk 7700

The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit

34 / 100

Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land?

Military aircraft

Emergency aircraft

VIP (head of state) aircraft

Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention

35 / 100

While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower, series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:

Must stop

Must vacate the landing area in use

Must return to its point of departure

May continue to taxi to the take-off area

36 / 100

If the time estimated for the next reporting point differs from that notified to ATS, a revised estimate shall be notified to ATS if the time difference is:

Three minutes or more.

Plus or minus two minutes or more.

In excess of three minutes.

None of the above is correct.

37 / 100

In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from:

150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft).

300m (984 ft) to 600m (1,968 ft).

150m (492 ft) to 900m (2,955 ft)

300m (984 ft) to 900m (2,955 ft).

38 / 100

(IR) An ETA for an IFR flight refers to the following:

FAF/FAP.

IAF.

Touch down.

None of the above.

39 / 100

(IR) If, during a visual circling, visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, the pilot shall:

Require immediate assistance from ATC which is obliged to provide radar vectors in order to maintain obstacle clearance.

Make an initial climbing turn towards the landing runway and follow the missed approach procedures.

Descend further in order to reach an altitude where visual reference can be maintained.

Climb straight ahead to the minimum sector altitude.

40 / 100

As a rule, while establishing the departure procedures, the operator reckons that aeroplane has a climb gradient of:

3.3% with all engines operating.

2.4% with two engines, 2.7% with three engines, 3% with four engines.

5% with all engines operating and a climb gradient margin respectively of 0.8%, 0.9%, 1% with two, three and four engines, taking in account one engine inoperative.

2.4% with all engines operating and 1.5% with one engine inoperative.

41 / 100

Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?

Initial, intermediate and final.

Arrival, intermediate and final.

Arrival, initial, intermediate and final.

Initial and final.

42 / 100

Load factors has the following meaning:

The loads assumed to occur in the anticipated operating conditions.

The ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, inertia forces and ground reactions.

The ratio of a specified load to the mass of the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, inertia forces and ground reactions.

The ratio of a specified load to the mass or the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic and inertia forces.

43 / 100

An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:

On the ground when the engines are running

Outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable

Outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed

While taxiing, but not when it is being towed

44 / 100

If in an instrument departure procedure, the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected:

To request from ATC different heading for wind correction.

To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace.

To ignore the wind and proceed on a heading equal to the track.

To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind correction.

45 / 100

In an instrument departure procedure, the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals:

0 ft.

35 ft.

3.3 % gradient.

0.8 % gradient

46 / 100

(IR) Why is the descent gradient kept as low as possible in the intermediate approach segment?

It is not possible to guarantee full obstacle clearance in this segment.

This is the segment in which speed and configuration are adjusted.

Usually track guidance is poor in this segment resulting in a requirement for a high MOC.

Pilots cannot cope with track maintenance a high rate of descent.

47 / 100

When the aircraft carries serviceable mode C equipment, the pilot:

Shall continuously operate this mode only when directed by ATC.

Shall continuously operate this mode regardless of ATC instructions.

Shall continuously operate this mode unless otherwise directed by ATC.

Shall continuously operate this mode only when the aircraft is within controlled airspace.

48 / 100

In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centerline, after being established on track, more than:

One and a half of scale deflection.

Half a scale deflection

One scale deflection.

A quarter of scale deflection.

49 / 100

An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:

Fly the emergency triangle

Declare an emergency

Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1,000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290

As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimize the difference between cabin pressure and outside pressure

50 / 100

The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date:

The license is issued or validated

The medical assessment is issued

The license is issued or renewed

The license is delivered to the pilot

51 / 100

Aircraft on the maneuvering area have to give way to:

Aircraft landing.

Aircraft taking off.

Aircraft landing and taking off.

Follow-me vehicles (and pedestrians)

52 / 100

The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is:

The airliner operator

The commander

The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspace

The aircraft owner

53 / 100

Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction?

To the right.

Teardrop to the left and then to the right.

To the left.

First right and then to the left.

54 / 100

The international civil aviation organization (ICAO.) was established by the international convention of:

Chicago

Warsaw

The Hague

Montreal

55 / 100

The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of :

25 nm

30 nm

10 nm

15 nm

56 / 100

The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of:

25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure, approach or missed approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks)

25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, 25° for circling-to-land with prescribed flight tracks and 15° for missed approach procedures.

25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, as well as circle-to-land, and 15° for missed approach procedures.

The bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate for all procedures with airspeed limitation related to aeroplane categories.

57 / 100

In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called:

Initial approach segment.

Intermediate approach segment.

Arrival segment.

Final approach segment.

58 / 100

What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?

Mode A code 7600.

Mode B code 7600.

Mode A code 7500.

Mode A code 7700.

59 / 100

A circling approach is:

A flight maneuver to be performed only under radar vectoring.

A visual flight maneuver keeping the runway in sight.

A visual maneuver to be conducted only in IMC.

A contact flight manoeuvre.

60 / 100

In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft, the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in:

Altitude above sea level on or above the transition altitude

Altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude

Flight level on or below the transition level

Flight level on or below the transition altitude

61 / 100

The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:

1,500 ft.

2,500 ft.

1,000 ft.

3,000 ft.

62 / 100

The first freedom of the air is:

The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to another state.

The right to land for a technical stop.

The right to overfly without landing.

The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states.

63 / 100

The second freedom of the air is the:

Right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states.

Right to land for a technical stop.

Right to overfly without landing.

Right to "cabotage" traffic, (trans-border traffic).

64 / 100

The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:

Visual maneuvering (circling).

Contact approach.

Visual approach.

Aerodrome traffic pattern.

65 / 100

What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?

2 minutes 30 seconds.

1 minute 30 seconds

1 minute.

2 minutes.

66 / 100

The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:

Taxiing needs not be confined to the taxiways

Landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only

Glider flying is performed outside the landing area

This aerodrome is using parallel runways

67 / 100

To cross lighted stop bars on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome, the following applies:

Lighted stop bars may only be crossed with the authorization of the aerodrome control tower.

An aircraft shall stop and hold at all lighted stop bars unless otherwise authorized by the aerodrome control tower.

An aircraft has to stop and hold at all lighted stop bars if so required by the aerodrome control tower.

An aircraft may only proceed further if the lights are switched off.

68 / 100

The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot license shall not be less than:

18 years of age.

21 years of age.

17 years of age.

16 years of age.

69 / 100

If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:

Map.

FAF.

Landing runway.

Final missed approach track.

70 / 100

In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to:

1 minute.

2 minutes.

1 minute 30 seconds.

3 minutes.

71 / 100

A maneuver in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a:

Base turn.

Procedure turn.

Race track.

Reversal track.

72 / 100

The transition level:

Shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established

For the aerodrome is published in the AGA section of the AIP

Shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been established

Is calculated and decided by the commander

73 / 100

(IR) The entry into a holding pattern shall be according to:

Magnetic track in relation to the three entry sectors.

Magnetic heading in relation to the three entry sectors.

True heading in relation to the three entry sectors.

True track in relation to the three entry sectors.

74 / 100

Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft:

Must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.

Must give way to another aircraft.

Is cleared to land.

Must land immediately and clear the landing area.

75 / 100

The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is :

6 months.

5 years.

1 year.

2 years.

76 / 100

A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:

Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.

Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body , then clench fist

Crossing arms extended above his head

Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground

77 / 100

The loading limitations shall include:

All limiting mass, centers of gravity position and floor loadings.

All limiting mass, centers of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loadings.

All limiting mass and centers of gravity.

All limiting mass, mass distributions and centers of gravity.

78 / 100

Entering a holding pattern at FL110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed?

230 kt IAS.

230 kt TAS.

240 kt IAS.

240 kt TAS.

79 / 100

A horizontal white dumb-bell when displayed on a signal area of an aerodrome means:

Aircraft are required to land, take off and taxi on runways and taxiways only.

Aircraft are required to land and take-off on runways only, but other maneuvers need not be confined to runways and taxiways.

Aircraft are required to land and take-off on runways only.

Aircraft are not required to land, take-off and taxi on runways and taxiways

80 / 100

Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:

5 nm

25 nm

20 nm

10 nm

81 / 100

You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descent below the MDA should not be made until:

1. The pilot has the landing threshold in sight
2. Visual reference has been
established and can be maintained
3. The required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a
landing can be made.

The combination regrouping all the correct answers is:

1, 2, 3.

2, 3.

1, 2.

1, 3.

82 / 100

In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below:

200 ft

The OCH

350 ft

400 ft

83 / 100

Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?

Switching on and off three times the landing lights

The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights

Switching on and off four times the landing lights

Switching on and off four times the navigation lights

84 / 100

Annex 17 to the convention of Chicago covers:

Aerodromes

Security

Facilitation

Operation of aircraft

85 / 100

Which maneuver shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft "you may proceed”?

Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft.

Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern.

Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft.

Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights.

86 / 100

How many separate segments does an instrument approach procedure have?

Up to 5

Up to 4

87 / 100

An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unless
otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following codes in mode "A":

7500

7600

7700

7000

88 / 100

When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licenses - aeroplane and helicopter - have passed their 40th birthday, the medical examination shall be reduced from:

12 months to 6 months

24 months to 12 months

12 months to 3 months

None of the answers are correct

89 / 100

(IR) Is the length of the outbound leg of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time?

Yes.

Yes even where DME is used, the maximum length is always in time.

No, where DME is used, it may be specified in terms of distance.

No, where g/s is less than 65 kt, the outbound leg must be at least 2 nm long.

90 / 100

Type ratings shall be established:

Only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots

Only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots and each type of helicopter

For any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority

All the answers are correct

91 / 100

An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall set its transponder to:

Mode A, code 2000 unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit.

Mode A, code 7000 unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit.

Mode A, code 7700 unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit.

Mode A, code 7600 unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit.

92 / 100

Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a
control zone when ceiling is less than:

1,500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km

2,000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km

1,000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km

1,000 feet or visibility is less than 8 km

93 / 100

The international civil aviation organization (ICAO) establishes:

Standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention.

Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.

Aeronautical standards adopted by all states.

Proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.

94 / 100

Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track?

Inform the ATC unit immediately

Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable

If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions

Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions

95 / 100

"Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist". This signal from a signalman to an aircraft means:

Start engines.

Chocks removed.

Engage brakes.

Release brakes.

96 / 100

What is the normal procedure design climb gradient for a missed approach procedure?

3°

3.3 %

2.5 %

2.5°

97 / 100

Standard airway holding pattern below 14,000 ft:

Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound

Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound

Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound

Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound

98 / 100

On a non-precision approach, a so-called "straight-in-approach" is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centerline is:

30 degrees or less

40 degrees or less

20 degrees or less

10 degrees or less

99 / 100

In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:

Mean sea level.

Aerodrome elevation.

Aerodrome reference point.

Relevant runway threshold.

100 / 100

In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of the turn for categories c, d, e aircraft for:

1 minute 30 seconds.

1 minute.

2 minutes.

1 minute 15 seconds.

Your score is

The average score is 99%

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Created on August 19, 2023 By

vahanvardanian

101-200

1 / 100

In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is the:

Mach number.

Indicated airspeed.

Ground speed.

True airspeed.

2 / 100

The stopway is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where:

An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.

A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.

A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway.

An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.

3 / 100

"An area symmetrical about the extended runway centerline and adjacent to the end of the strip primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway" is the definition for:

Clearway.

Stopway.

Runway end safety area.

None of the above.

4 / 100

According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to :

LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft

LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m. (using whole runway)

LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same runway

MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft

5 / 100

The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:

5 minutes.

3 minutes.

6 minutes.

10 minutes

6 / 100

For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of:

0.6

0.5

0.7

0.8

7 / 100

Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when:

The preceding aircraft is 30 kt or faster than the following aircraft.

The preceding aircraft is 20 kt or faster than the following aircraft.

The preceding aircraft is 40 kt or faster than the following aircraft.

The preceding aircraft is 10 kt or faster than the following aircraft.

8 / 100

What color are runway edge lights?

White

Blue

Yellow

Red

9 / 100

Taxiway edge lights shall be:

Fixed showing green.

Fixed showing yellow.

Flashing showing blue.

Fixed showing blue.

10 / 100

"TODA" take-off distance available is:

The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).

The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway and clearway (if provided).

The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).

The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway.

11 / 100

What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference :

Code 7700

Code 7500

Code 7600

Code 2000

12 / 100

In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is:

30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.

30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.

60 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.

60 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.

13 / 100

An aircraft is flying in heavy rain. To carry out a safe approach, it is necessary to :

Increase its approach speed, because the rain affects the lift by deteriorating the boundary layer

Carry out an approach with flaps up, in order to avoid exposing too much lifting surface to the rain

Reduce the approach speed, because the runway may be very slippery on landing

Maintain the normal approach speed up to landing

14 / 100

The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Mach number is :

15 minutes.

5 minutes.

20 minutes.

10 minutes.

15 / 100

For twin-engine aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that:

Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with all engines operating.

Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative.

Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative.

Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed all engines operating.

16 / 100

A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least:

30 minutes prior to leave the blocks.

10 minutes prior to departure.

50 minutes prior to leave the blocks.

60 minutes prior to departure.

17 / 100

In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, you will:

1. Set the maximum take-off thrust
2. Increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating the stick shaker
3. Pull in the drag devices (gear and flaps)
4. Keep the airplane's current configuration
5. Try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratio.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 2, 4

3, 5

1, 3, 5

2, 3

18 / 100

The term decision height (DH) is used for :

A conventional approach.

A precision approach.

A conventional approach followed by a visual maneuver.

19 / 100

During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is:

The outer marker (OM).

The start final descent point (glide slope intersection).

The FAF.

The middle marker.

20 / 100

DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated takeoff
mass. Heavy (H) Category includes all aircraft types of :

136,000 Kg or more

146,000 Kg or more

135,000 Kg or more

Less than 136,000 Kg but more than 126,000 Kg

21 / 100

When applying longitudinal separation based on distance (DME), the minimum separation between two aircraft on reciprocal tracks climbing or descending through the same flight level shall be at least:

6 nm

10 km

3 nm

2 km

22 / 100

Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as:

Prescribed by the aircraft operations.

Decided on pilot's discretion.

The weather permits.

Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC.

23 / 100

A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with :

A decision height of at least 200 ft

A decision height of at least 50 ft

A decision height of at least 100 ft

No decision height

24 / 100

The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS Airspace is:

30 NM.

60 NM.

90 NM.

120 NM.

25 / 100

Where a runway has a displaced threshold, what color are the edge lights between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold showing in the direction of the approach?

Red

Blue

White

Green

26 / 100

The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on:
1. The type and intensity of the showers
2. The ambient temperature
3. The relative humidity
4. The direction and speed of the wind
5. The temperature of the airplane skin
6. The type of fluid, its concentration and temperature.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 3, 5, 6

2, 3, 4, 5

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

1, 2, 4, 6

27 / 100

When a radar operator says the following to an aircraft: "fly heading 030", the pilot must fly heading:

030° magnetic in still air conditions (thereby flying the magnetic track)

030° true

030° magnetic

030° true, in still air conditions (thereby flying the true track)

28 / 100

Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?

The aircraft operator.

The pilot in command.

The ATC.

The air traffic service reporting office when accepting the flight plan.

29 / 100

For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes unless otherwise specified, an aircraft must be equipped with at least:

One Inertial Navigation System (INS).

Two Inertial Navigation Systems (INS).

One Long Range Navigation System (LNRS).

Two independent Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS).

30 / 100

In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air-air communications is:

118.800 MHz

121.800 MHz

131.800 MHz

128.800 MHz

31 / 100

What lighting is required for runways to be used for take-off in an operating minimum below an RVR of approximately 400 m?

Centerline lighting.

Edge lighting.

Edge lighting and centerline lighting.

Either edge lighting or centerline lighting.

32 / 100

Required navigation performance (RNP) shall be prescribed:

By regional air navigation agreements

By states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements

By states but not on the basis of regional air agreements

By ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements

33 / 100

A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on track" waypoint. This minimum is:

80 nm.

50 nm.

60 nm.

20 nm.

34 / 100

Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom the commander should submit a report of the act?

The Authority of the State of the operator only

The local authority only

Both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator

The Authority of the State within which the aeroplane is operating at the time of the unlawful interference

35 / 100

When on a RNP 1 route is indicated a342 z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of :

15 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190

15 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200

22.5 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250

25 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190

36 / 100

The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of colored streamers according to the following code:

Blue for food and water.

Yellow for medical supplies and first aid equipment.

Black for food and water.

Red for miscellaneous equipment.

37 / 100

A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :

550 m

800 m

350 m

500 m

38 / 100

The ground - air visual code illustrated means:

Require assistance

Proceeding in the direction shown

Please indicate direction

Require medical assistance

39 / 100

Runway end lights shall be:

Fixed lights showing variable white.

Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway.

Fixed lights showing variable red.

Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway

40 / 100

One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination
or, at an aerodrome of alternative destination, are:

At the predicted time of take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.

At the predicted time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted time, equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.

At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.

At the predicted time of arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.

41 / 100

The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels:

275 and 400.

280 and 400.

280 and 390.

285 and 420.

42 / 100

When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the
aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than :

25 degrees

20 degrees

30 degrees

15 degrees

43 / 100

When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the following effects:
1. an increase in the take-off distance
2. a diminution of the take-off run
3. an increase in the stalling speed
4. a diminution of the stalling speed
5. a diminution of the climb gradient.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

2, 4, 5

1, 3, 5

1, 2, 3

2, 3, 5

44 / 100

During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling, the pilot should contact departure control:

Before penetrating the clouds.

When clear of the airport and established on the first heading given in the clearance.

When advised by tower.

After take-off.

45 / 100

A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :

50 m

200 m

100 m

250 m

46 / 100

What color is taxiway edge lighting?

Blue

White

Green

Yellow

47 / 100

For a long-range four-jet aircraft in cruising flight, the optimum altitude and the lock-on altitude increase. The most cost-effective flight plan will consist of choosing cruising levels which increase during the flight in order to fly :

About the optimum altitude

Between the lock-on altitude and the optimum altitude

About the lock-on altitude

Just below the optimum altitude

48 / 100

During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time starts:

At the beginning of the first stage (de-icing stage).

At the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage).

At the end of the second stage (anti-icing stage).

At the end of the first stage (de-icing stage).

49 / 100

When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary that:

Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on board.

All the flight crew be on board.

The aircraft's stairs be completely extended.

Refueling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking.

50 / 100

In the "PAPI" system, the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when:

Above the approach slope.

Below the approach slope.

Only on the approach slope.

On or close to the approach slope.

51 / 100

"ASDA" (acceleration stop distance available) is:

The length of the runway plus the length of stopway available (if stopway provided)

The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway provided)

The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway and clearway (if provided)

The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway

52 / 100

Aircraft in which wake turbulence category shall include their category immediately after the call sign in the initial radiotelephony contact with the aerodrome control tower or the approach control office prior to departure or arrival?

Medium aircraft.

Heavy aircraft.

Medium and heavy aircraft.

Medium, heavy and light aircraft.

53 / 100

Which wake turbulence radar separation minima shall be applied between a heavy aircraft and a succeeding medium aircraft during the approach and departure phases of a flight?

5 nm.

2.5 nm.

4 nm.

6 nm.

54 / 100

For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?

9.3 km (5 NM)

11.1 km (6 NM)

3.7 km (2 NM)

7.4 km (4 NM)

55 / 100

The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is:

20 nm.

5 nm.

10 nm.

20 nm when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.

56 / 100

Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:

Fixed green.

Flashing white.

Flashing green.

Fixed white.

57 / 100

To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should maneuver :

Below and downwind from the larger aircraft

Above and upwind from the larger aircraft

Above and downwind from the larger aircraft

Below and upwind from the larger aircraft

58 / 100

The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot?

The radar identity of the aircraft has been established

Position reports may be omitted

The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft

The aircraft is subject to positive control

59 / 100

According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to :

MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel separated by less than 760 m

LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway

MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft

LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft

60 / 100

The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:

3 minutes.

10 minutes.

5 minutes.

15 minutes.

61 / 100

In the "VASIS", how many light units are in each wing bar?

62 / 100

What is meant when a departure controller instructs you to "resume own navigation" after you have been vectored to an airway?

Radar service is terminated.

Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.

You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.

You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.

63 / 100

ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are:

Below 1,500 m (5,000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater

Below 2,000 m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater

Below 900 m (3,000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater

Cumulonimbus

64 / 100

"Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures:

Precision approach runways in general.

Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.

Precision approach runways category I, II and III.

Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.

65 / 100

The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of colored streamers according to the following code:

Red for food and water.

Blue for medical supplies and first aid equipment.

Yellow for blankets and protective clothing.

Black for food and water.

66 / 100

What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?

500 feet

1,500 feet

1,000 feet

2,000 feet

67 / 100

Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:

Fixed red.

Flashing yellow.

Flashing red.

Fixed orange.

68 / 100

The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following into account:
1. Equipment available for navigation
2. Dimensions and characteristics of the runways
3. Composition of the flight crew
4. Obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas
5. Facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditions.

1,2,4,5

2,4,5

1,2,3,4,5

2,3,5

69 / 100

A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :

75 m

250 m

150 m

200 m

70 / 100

If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft:

The pilot has to accept the ATC clearance because it has been based on the flight plan filed with ATC.

He may request another clearance and the ATC concerned has to accept the pilot request.

He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.

The pilot should propose another clearance to the ATC concerned.

71 / 100

When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:

7500.

7000.

7700.

7600.

72 / 100

"A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off" is the
definition for:

Stopway

Runway strip.

Runway end safety area.

Clearway.

73 / 100

Which of the following is not an international distress frequency?

2430 kHz

2.182 kHz

121.5 MHz

243.0 MHz

74 / 100

The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :

The manufacturer

The aircraft manufacturer's list

The operator

The aircraft state of registry

75 / 100

Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with secondary surveillance radar (SSR)?

Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700.

Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600

Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communication failure 7500.

Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600.

76 / 100

When on a RNP 1 route is indicated b235 y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of:

25.0 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250

22.5 nm between 30° and 90° at and above FL 260

22.5 nm between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200

20 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200

77 / 100

The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from :

30° North to 90° North.

27° North to 70° North.

27° North to 90° North.

30° North to 70° North.

78 / 100

Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that:

The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 20° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

79 / 100

Two aircraft are departing from a reporting point defined by an NDB. What is the minimum track separation required before one aircraft would be permitted to climb/descend through the other aircraft's level?

30° and a distance of 15 nm or more.

15° and a distance of 15 nm or more.

15° and a distance of 15 km or more.

30° and a distance of 15 km or more

80 / 100

The light shown by an "aerodrome identification beacon" at a land aerodrome shall be:

Green color identification given by Morse code.

White and green color identification given by Morse code.

Blue color identification given by Morse code.

White color identification given by Morse code.

81 / 100

The holdover time following an anti-icing procedure being carried out will vary considerably depending on the ambient temperature and the weather conditions. For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in weather conditions of:

Freezing fog

Rain on a cold soaked wing

Frost

Steady snow

82 / 100

Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of:

60 nm or more

100 nm or more

75 nm or more

50 nm or more

83 / 100

The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a :

High weight and high speed

Low weight and low speed

High weight and low speed

Low weight and high speed

84 / 100

Windshear is:

A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction variation over a short distance

A vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance

A horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance

A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a large distance

85 / 100

The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of colored streamers according to the following code:

Blue for blankets and protective clothing.

Black for food and water.

Red for medical supplies and first aid equipment.

Yellow for miscellaneous equipment.

86 / 100

Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a windshear?

Pitch angle.

Vertical speed.

Indicated airspeed.

Groundspeed.

87 / 100

For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of the following types of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be shortest ?

Freezing rain

Frost

Steady snow

Freezing fog

88 / 100

Runway threshold lights shall be:

Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway.

Fixed lights green colors.

Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway.

Fixed lights showing green or white colors.

89 / 100

Under which circumstances may a pilot deviate from a published instrument approach procedure?

If visual reference is established before the completion of the instrument approach procedure and the aircraft is cleared for a visual approach.

If visual reference is established before the completion of the instrument approach procedure.

Under no circumstances a pilot may deviate from a published instrument approach procedure.

None of the above is correct.

90 / 100

Change from IFR to VFR will always take place:

When the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC

On the initiative of the aircraft commander

At the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions

As instructed by an air traffic control unit

91 / 100

High intensity obstacle lights should be:

Fixed orange.

Flashing white.

Flashing red.

Fixed red.

92 / 100

One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least:

45° immediately after take-off.

15° immediately after take-off.

30° immediately after take-off.

25° immediately after take-off

93 / 100

In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when:

The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.

The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.

The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure.

The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off departure.

94 / 100

The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:

5 minutes.

15 minutes.

10 minutes.

3 minutes.

95 / 100

The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :

The operator.

The aircraft manufacturer's list.

The manufacturer.

The aircraft state of registry.

96 / 100

What does a white line drawn across a runway indicate?

The threshold.

The beginning of the touch down zone.

A displaced threshold.

1,000 ft from the end zone.

97 / 100

In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:

You descend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration.

You go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the airplane in a clean configuration until the final approach.

You carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety altitude.

You climb to the maximum flight level which does not need the use of pressurization.

98 / 100

A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from the shore by more than :

50 NM

100 NM

200 NM

400 NM

99 / 100

Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:

Fixed lights, white or yellow color.

Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.

Fixed lights showing variable white.

Flashing white.

100 / 100

Selecting an alternate aerodrome, the runway of this facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within:

80% of the landing distance available.

70% of the landing distance available.

50% of the landing distance available.

60% of the landing distance available.

Your score is

The average score is 98%

LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte

Created on August 19, 2023 By

vahanvardanian

201-300

1 / 100

Normally how should you call a Flight Attendant?

Using the ACP CAB pb.

Using an overhead FWD or AFT call push button.

Selecting the ATTND ADV pb on.

Use the P.A. microphone.

2 / 100

What limitation is associated with the ram air valve?

Do not open if cabin pressure is greater than 1 psi.

Only open while on the ground.

Will not open if the DITCHING switch is off.

Operation is automatic.

3 / 100

Which statement is TRUE concerning the cargo compartment ventilation?

Both cargo compartments are pressurized and heated using both cabin air and hot trim air.

Recirculated air, conditioned air, and hot trim air are mixed then distributed to each cargo compartment.

Only the aft cargo compartment is heated and ventilated. Cabin ambient air is mixed with hot trim air and drawn through isolation valves by extraction fans.

None of the above.

4 / 100

What information is supplied by the IR's and displayed on the PFD?

Heading, attitude, and vertical speed.

Heading, altitude, and vertical speed.

Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical speed.

Heading, attitude, and altitude.

5 / 100

Where no outer marker or equivalent position exists, the pilot in command shall make the decision to continue or stop the approach before descending below --------------- on the final approach segment.

1,500 AGL.

MDA.

1,000 feet above the airport.

6 / 100

Placing the BLOWER push button to override:

Insures the blower fan will continue to run.

Places the avionics ventilation system in the open configuration.

De-energizes the blower fan.

Places the avionics ventilation system in the closed configuration.

7 / 100

If a flight is cleared to hold, ATC holding instructions must be complied with. …

These instructions may be issued by the controller or they may be required on the charts.

These instructions may be issued by the controller only.

These instructions may be required on the charts only.

8 / 100

How long does a normal IR alignment take?

Approximately 4 minutes.

Approximately 3 minutes.

Approximately 15 minutes.

Approximately 10 minutes.

9 / 100

Which of the following statements is always true when operating in alternate law?

Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Mechanical backup law.

Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Direct law.

Extending the landing gear will have no effect on the status of the flight controls.

None of the above is correct.

10 / 100

In addition to the languages required by the State of Origin, what language should be set for the markings related to dangerous goods :

English

English, French or Spanish

French

Spanish

11 / 100

If the IR mode rotary selector is selected OFF:

IR information will be disconnected.

ADR information will be disconnected.

ADR and IR information will be disconnected.

The ADIRU is not energized; ADR and IR information is lost.

12 / 100

Placing the avionics ventilation system in the smoke configuration:

Opens the #1 GLC.

Opens the cargo under-floor valve.

De-energizes the blower fan, extract fan runs, opens the air conditioning extract valves.

Opens the #2 GLC.

13 / 100

Which of the following statements is correct concerning conditioned air?

Recirculated air, conditioned air and hot trim air are mixed then distributed to each zone.

Conditioned air and trim air are mixed then distributed to each zone.

Recirculating fans draw cabin air to a mixing unit where conditioned air is added.

Hot trim air is added to the mixing unit before distribution to each zone.

14 / 100

All flight crew members when on duty MUST bring:

Their licenses and medical certificates.

Their licenses only.

Their licenses, medical certificates and logbooks.

15 / 100

In normal law, the low speed limits depicted on each pilot’s PFD:

Are displayed as green x's.

Are displayed as green ='s.

Are displayed as Alpha prot and Alpha max. These Limits vary with to GW, CG, altitude and other environmental factors.

Are displayed as green =o's.

16 / 100

ACARS computerized Load and trim sheet must show name and staff ID number of the person preparing the sheet. The Commander acknowledges his receipt of ACARS computerized Load and trim sheet via ACARS data link network, giving his ….

Full name.

ID number.

Name and his position.

17 / 100

The objective of CRM is to enhance:

The communication skills of the flight crew.

The management skills of the flight crew.

Both a and b are correct.

18 / 100

The standard weight of crew, passengers and cargo for normal flights is as follows:

Flight crew: 75kgs, Cabin crew: 70kgs; Passengers: 90kgs; Children: 37kgs

Flight crew: 80kgs, Cabin crew: 70kgs; Passengers: 70kgs; Children: 30kgs

Flight crew: 90kgs, Cabin crew: 75kgs; Passengers: 75kgs; Children: 35kgs

19 / 100

The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by :

The operator.

The captain.

The shipper.

The handling agent.

20 / 100

What causes a DU to display a black screen with a white diagonal line?

No power.

DMC failure.

The circuit breaker for that particular DU has popped.

None of the above is correct.

21 / 100

Following an emergency landing which will need an escape from the aircraft, you will:
1. remain on the runway,
2. clear the runway using the first available taxiway,
3. keep one engine or the APU running in order to maintain the electrical power supply on,
4. turn off all systems.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1,4.

2,3.

1,3.

2,4.

22 / 100

How can you change pressurization controllers during flight?

Cycle the LDG ELEV AUTO knob out of the AUTO position then back to AUTO.

Cycle the CABIN PRESS MODE SEL pushbutton to the MAN position then back to AUTO.

Cycle the cabin pressurization MAN V/S CTL switch.

None of the above is correct.

23 / 100

A pilot ------accept a clearance with which he cannot safely comply or which exceeds the capabilities of the aircraft. The commander is the final authority as to the operation of the aircraft.

Must.

May co-operate and.

Must not.

24 / 100

Placing one of the ADR push buttons OFF will accomplish what?

The OFF light will illuminate and air data output will disconnect.

The respective ADIRU will become deenergized.

Both AD and IR information will be disconnected.

Both b and c are correct.

25 / 100

Crew members shall, on request of a law enforcement officer or the Authority, yield to a test to indicate the presence of alcohol or psychoactive substances in the blood at any time:

Up to 8 hours before acting as a crew member.

Immediately after attempting to act as a crew member.

Immediately after acting as a crew member.

All of the above are correct.

26 / 100

What does amber SPEED BRAKES mean on lower ECAM?

Speed brakes are extended and flap handle is not at 0.

Speed brakes have a fault.

Speed brakes are extended and engines are not at idle.

All of the above are correct.

27 / 100

What is the maximum altitude associated with the pressurization system?

41,100 feet.

38,500 feet

39,800 feet

39,500 feet

28 / 100

How many temperature selectors are there on the A321? How many temperature zones are there?

Three rotary temperature selectors and one zone.

Three rotary temperature selectors, one each for the cockpit zone, the forward cabin zone, and the aft cabin zone.

Two rotary temperature selectors, one for the cockpit and first class zone and one for the aft cabin zone.

Four rotary temperature selectors and four zones.

29 / 100

In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain:

1. You increase your approach speed,
2. You land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the wheels with the runway and immediately land your nose gear,
3. You decrease your approach speed,
4. You use systematically all the lift dumper devices,
5. You land as smoothly as possible,
6. You brake energetically.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

3, 5

1, 2, 4

2, 3, 4

1, 4, 5, 6

30 / 100

The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the :

Aircraft's weight.

Strength of the headwind.

Depth of the standing water on the runway.

Amount of the lift off speed.

31 / 100

Temperature correction: The calculated minimum safe altitudes/heights must be corrected when the OAT is much ----- than that predicted by the standard atmosphere.

Higher.

More..

Lower

32 / 100

The ON BAT light will illuminate amber:

When one or more IR's are operating on aircraft battery power.

For a few seconds at the beginning of the alignment process.

Both a and b are correct.

None of the above is correct.

33 / 100

Pressurization controllers receive inputs from:

LGCIU, ADIRU, FMGS, and EIU.

LGCIU's and the MCDU.

LGCIU's and pitot static sources.

MCDU and LGCIU'S.

34 / 100

What is the function of the FACs?
1. Rudder & Yaw Damping inputs.
2. Flight envelope & Speed computations.
3. Windshear protection.

1 only

1 and 2

1 and 3

1, 2, and 3

35 / 100

Which statement is correct regarding illumination of the amber AFT ISOL VALVE fault light?

Automatically closes the aft cargo compartment isolation valves.

Means that either the inlet or outlet isolation valve(s) disagrees with the switch position.

Indicates that the extract fan has stopped.

All of the above are correct.

36 / 100

To communicate with a mechanic for manual start valve operation at the engine:

Select the transmission key push button labeled CAB and the audio selector labelled CAB.

Select the transmission key push button labelled INT and the INT audio selector.

Select the INT/RAD selector to INT, and INT audio selector on.

None of the above is correct.

37 / 100

What happens when a temperature selector rotary knob is adjusted?

A signal is sent to the zone controller requesting a different temperature.

The associated trim air valve immediately moves to a different position.

Nothing as there is no relationship between a temperature selector knob and the trim air valve.

None of the above is correct.

38 / 100

What are the different sources of air for air conditioning and pressurization?

Engine bleed air.

Engine bleed air and recirculated air.

Engine bleed air and recirculated air, or if selected, APU bleed air and recirculated air.

None of the above is correct.

39 / 100

For depressurization, it may be necessary to descend below the en-route minimum altitude determined for normal operation in order to cope with passenger oxygen requirements. At any
time, the aircraft gross (actual) flight path must clear vertically all obstacles by:

2,000 ft.

1,500 ft.

1,000 ft.

40 / 100

When the passenger checked baggage (loaded in the cargo compartment) is not weighed, the following standard weight per piece of checked baggage is used:

Domestic flights: 11kgs; International flights: 15kgs

Domestic flights: 15kgs; International flights: 25kgs

Domestic flights: 15kgs; International flights: 15kgs

41 / 100

Airport categories B and C are considered special airports and:

Special flight crew qualifications are required.

Special flight crew qualifications are required for airport category C only.

None of them requires special flight crew qualifications.

42 / 100

How many Air Data/Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs) are installed on the A321?

One

Two

Three

Four

43 / 100

While in-flight, operating in Normal law, in the Alpha prot range:

The flight controls revert to direct law.

The sidestick controller and flight controls revert to the AOA mode, and side stick deflection is proportional to AOA.

The flight controls remain in the load factor demand law.

None of the above is correct.

44 / 100

While in flight operating in Normal law, movement of the sidestick and subsequent return to neutral will command:

Control surface movements proportional to stick deflection, then return the aircraft to straight and level flight.

The control surfaces to continue rolling the aircraft until reaching 55 degrees roll angle.

Control surface movements proportional to stick deflection, disconnect auto trim, and maintain its current attitude.

A load factor proportional to stick deflection, then maintain one G flight corrected for pitch attitude.

45 / 100

Pressurization is normally automatic on the A321. Can you interfere with it?

Yes, manually set landing elevation using the LND ELEV AUTO selector.

Yes, CABIN PRESS MODE SEL to OVERRIDE and MAN V/S CTL toggle switch.

Both a and b are correct.

No.

46 / 100

If the LOWER ECAM DU fails, is there a way to retrieve that information?

Pressing and holding the related systems page pb on the ECAM control panel; the page will be displayed on the UPPER ECAM.

Rotating the ECAM/ND XFER switch, the LOWER ECAM page will be transferred to either the Captain or First officers ND.

Both a and b are correct.

None of the above is correct.

47 / 100

If both ELACs fail, what controls the elevator and stabilizer?

SECS.

FACS.

Nothing, they revert to mechanical backup.

ELAC's

48 / 100

As a relief pilot, a first officer can operate on the left hand seat as PNF/PM only:

At take-off and landing.

From 20,000 feet and above.

At any time during the flight.

49 / 100

What happens to the pack flow control valves during engine start?

They must be selected off.

They must be selected off on cold days only.

They must be selected off on hot days only.

They automatically close.

50 / 100

Aft cargo ventilation is controlled by:

The aft cargo rotary selector knob.

The zone controller and the SDCU.

The cargo ventilation controller.

All of the above are correct.

51 / 100

The DDRMI provides the pilot with:

Bearing and DME information for VOR 1 and ADF 1.

Bearing and DME information for VOR 2 and ADF 2.

Bearing only for VOR 1 and VOR 2.

None of the above is correct.

52 / 100

What action should be taken if IR #2 is lost:

Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to CAPT 3.

Move the EIS DMC rotary selector knob to F/O 3.

Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/0 3.

Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/0 1.

53 / 100

On an autoland approach, with both autopilots on, which FMGC is master?

FMGC 1

FMGC 2

Both

54 / 100

Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:

15 %

20 %

18 %

17,6 %

55 / 100

In normal law, MMO and VMO limits depicted on each pilot’s PFD:

Are displayed as green x's.